Math guessing game.

grey22

Decimal 5 = 50 percent.
50 percercent is written 50/50, fifty/fifty.

Are you closer to 50 percent or one ?

I say one. But I may be wrong. What do you think ?

What are the implications of your answer ?

selfAdjoint

Fifty-fifty does not mean the fraction 50/50. The value of that fraction is 1. Fifty-fifty means you take half (50%) and I'll take half. Even steven (which does not refer to Steven Hawking).

grey22

"50/50"

There is the symmetry of 1) Ratio, 2)Irrational.

If symmetry does exist in the irrational, the numerator is also the denominator.

I have to go. But think on that.

grey22

The idea is. Symmetry is 1.) Rational. 2.) Irrational.

Since this is true. 50/50, can be represented by this graphic.

O/O

This is either 1.) Rational. Or 2.) Irrational. Or 3.) Both Irrational + Rational.

If it is both Rational + Irrational. It can be both, or either.

I say, it is the rational number 1.

HallsofIvy

This is all a joke, right?

grey22

Nope.

HallsofIvy

I'm very sorry to hear that. [:(]

grey22

The fact of the matter is the irrational number pi, can be symmetric through rational numbers.

1=1

Edit.

[Rational 50/50 = Irrational 50/50] = Real Numbers; 1

Zurtex

Sorry but you need to stop and realise you do not have any rigorous understanding of mathematics and you need to sit down and read a lot if you want.

The number system we use has been carefully constructed over a long period of time, we don't just take philosophical ideas randomly and turn them in to mathematics with no real idea of what they mean.

DeadWolfe

I can't understand what you're saying.

Could you please try again, it's not very clear right now.

grey22

I'm trying not to influence mankind. But...I like to talk. So, I'll reiterate myself.

# 1.) Symmetry functions with 1.

edit
# 2.) The irrational number 1 pi / The irrational number 1 pi = 1 / 1

jcsd

But i get the feeling some very powerful drugs are trying to influence you

Zurtex

Please explain what that means, I have no idea what the first means and I am going to guess in the second you are trying to write:

[tex]\frac{1*\pi}{1*\pi} = \frac{1}{1}[/tex]

Which makes sense as:

[tex]\frac{1}{1} = 1 \quad \text{and} \quad 1*a=a[/tex]

and:

[tex]\frac{a}{a} = 1 \quad \forall a \in \mathbb{R} \backslash \{ 0 \}[/tex]

grey22

I'm showing a way to classify real numbers.

1 Pi / 1 Pi = 1 / 1

OR.

O / O = 1 / 1
Where O Is the description of Pi.

DeadWolfe

Are you a poli-sci major or something?

danne89

Strange... Are you aware of you cannot express Pi in the form [itex]\frac {a}{b}[/itex]. That is called irrational. Or are you implifing someting else?

grey22

If Pi cannot be symmetrically expressed within a fraction, how can pi(edit.The irrational number pi) exist within a fraction ?

And then, if pi can be expressed within a fraction, can't that fraction equal 1.

And NO. I am no polical Scientist.