angular velocity of object after being subjected to torque


by serverxeon
Tags: angular, object, subjected, torque, velocity
serverxeon
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#1
Nov2-12, 01:39 PM
P: 98


In particular I am only looking at part c.

I know the simpler approach is to use energy.

But I am thinking if i can do an integration of all the torque throughout the process, and hence find the integration of the net angular acceleration and find the resultant change in angular velocity.

But I have no idea how to do the mathematics. Can anyone show me how the mathematics is done?
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tiny-tim
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Nov2-12, 02:52 PM
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hi serverxeon!
Quote Quote by serverxeon View Post
if i can do an integration of all the torque throughout the process, and hence find the integration of the net angular acceleration and find the resultant change in angular velocity.

But I have no idea how to do the mathematics. Can anyone show me how the mathematics is done?
τ = Iα
torque (of the weight) = 1/3 ML2 d2θ/dt2
serverxeon
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Nov2-12, 03:11 PM
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Quote Quote by tiny-tim View Post
hi serverxeon!


τ = Iα
torque (of the weight) = 1/3 ML2 d2θ/dt2
hey thanks for the help.

sorry but I still don't know how to go on from here!

could you elaborate a bit further!

In particular I was looking at using the 'infinitesimal' dτ or dα approach.

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Nov2-12, 04:10 PM
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angular velocity of object after being subjected to torque


Quote Quote by serverxeon View Post
In particular I was looking at using the 'infinitesimal' dτ or dα approach.
there is no dτ or dα in this situation

use torque (of the weight) = 1/3 ML2 d2θ/dt2
what is the torque? (as a function of θ)


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