Does the Integral Diverge as a Tends to Infinity?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the divergence of the integral \(\int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1/a-1/x}dx\) for \(a > 0\). Participants are exploring various approaches to demonstrate this divergence without relying on the antiderivative of \(1/x\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the limit \(\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{\frac{1}{a} - \frac{1}{x}}\) and discussing the evaluation of the integral as a limit. Some suggest breaking down the integral into intermediary steps, while others express concern about adhering to the problem's constraints.

Discussion Status

There are multiple interpretations of how to approach the problem, with some participants suggesting alternative methods. The discussion is ongoing, with no explicit consensus reached on a single approach.

Contextual Notes

Participants are reminded not to use the antiderivative of \(1/x\) in their solutions, which adds a layer of complexity to their reasoning and approaches.

quasar987
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Here's the problem:

Consider a > 0. Show that the integral

[tex]\int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1/a-1/x}dx[/tex]

diverges. Do so without using the fact that the primitive of 1/x is ln x. :eek:

I have no clue what to do!
 
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What's [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{\frac{1}{a} - \frac{1}{x}}[/tex]?
 
Last edited:
Evaluate the integral as
[tex]\lim_{b\rightarrow \infty}\int_{a+1}^{b}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{x}}\ {dx}[/tex]
[tex]=\lim_{b\rightarrow \infty}\int_{a+1}^{b}a-\frac{a^2}{a-x}\ dx[/tex]
...
... you can do the intermediary steps here... you'll work out that you get something like the following:
[tex]\lim_{b\rightarrow \infty}ab-a^2\log{a-b}-a^2-a+\log{1}[/tex]

as you know, [itex]ab[/itex] goes to infinity as b goes to infinity. ln(a-b) also becomes undefined as you subtract infinity from any number, since log is only defined for positive numbers.
 
Answering my query is a whole lot easier, and, unlike scholzie's method, does not require you to break the rules of the question!

Do so without using the fact that the primitive of 1/x is ln x.
 
quasar987 said:
Here's the problem:

Consider a > 0. Show that the integral

[tex]\int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1/a-1/x}dx[/tex]

diverges. Do so without using the fact that the primitive of 1/x is ln x. :eek:

I have no clue what to do!
Note that since {a > 0}:

[tex]:(1): \ \ \ \ \ 0 \ \ < \ \ a \ \ = \ \ \frac {1} {1/a} \ \ < \ \ \frac{1} {1/a-1/x} \ \ \ \ \color{blue} \mathbb \forall \ \ x \ \ge \ (a + 1)[/tex]

[tex]:(2): \ \ \ \ \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ \ \ 0 \ \ < \ \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} a \ dx \ \ < \ \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac {1} {1/a-1/x} \ dx[/tex]

[tex]:(3): \ \ \ \ \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ \ \ 0 \ \ < \ \ \left [ ax \right ]_{a + 1}^{\infty} \ \ < \ \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac {1} {1/a-1/x} \ dx[/tex]

[tex]:(4): \ \ \ \ \color{red} \Longrightarrow \ \ (\infty) \ < \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac {1} {1/a-1/x} \ dx[/tex]

Thus, subject integral diverges.


~~
 
Last edited:
Data said:
Answering my query is a whole lot easier, and, unlike scholzie's method, does not require you to break the rules of the question!
Didnt see the bit about not using the antiderivative ln(x)... I was only trying to help...
 
scholzie said:
Didnt see the bit about not using the antiderivative ln(x)... I was only trying to help...
No problem ... several techniques are now available for comparison.


~~
 
Last edited:
Yep, nothing wrong with posting alternate methods of solution, I was just trying to avoid getting him confused.
 
Ok, thanks everyone!
 

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