can subatomic particles be considered monopoles?


by nst.john
Tags: considered, monopoles, particles, subatomic
nst.john
nst.john is offline
#1
Jun27-13, 11:36 AM
P: 102
For a while I've been thinking "what is charge?"and I've looked in many sites and did not find much but me and another person concluded that maybe subatomic particles (protons and electron)act as single moving north or south poles. I might be completely wrong I'm new at physics but it was just an idea.
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DrChinese
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#2
Jun27-13, 11:51 AM
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Welcome to PhysicsForums!

I might suggest that prior to starting your conjectures, you read up on some of the basics about particle physics. That will place you on a better track. You will quickly find that speculation is unnecessary in areas in which thousands of professional physicists have already walked. You and I get to step on the backs of these greats.

In the case you mention: protons are not fundamental particles. They are in fact composed of 3 quarks: 2 ups and a down. Ups have charge of 2/3, and a Down has a charge of -1/3. See:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proton

In addition, free electron charge is spherically symmetric. Therefore it cannot be a monopole.
wotanub
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#3
Jun27-13, 01:39 PM
P: 209
Electrons can be considered electric monopoles for every theoretical consideration I've seen.

We haven't seen a natural magnetic monopole.


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