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congruence help |
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| Apr6-05, 08:23 PM | #1 |
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congruence help
Anybody know how to do this one:
For each odd prime p and for each k such that 0<= k <=(p-1), prove that: the combination (p-1, k) is congruent to (-1)^k (mod p) Any help would be great. |
| Apr6-05, 09:01 PM | #2 |
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What is "the combination"?
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| Apr6-05, 10:59 PM | #3 |
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Recognitions:
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I'm guessing the 'combination' is refering to the binomial coefficient.
In that case consider (x+y)^p mod p. Expand/simplify it in a couple ways, using the fact that p is prime (Fermat's little theorem) and then using the binomial theorem on (x+y)(x+y)^(p-1). Then compare coefficients. |
| Apr7-05, 12:44 AM | #4 |
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congruence help
combination(p-1, k) = [(p-1)!]/ [k!*(p-1-k)!]
sorry if i didn't make sense :) |
| Apr7-05, 07:13 AM | #5 |
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In other words...
[tex] \binom{p-1}{k} = \frac{p-1}{1} \frac{p-2}{2} \cdots \frac{p-k}{k} [/tex] ... |
| Apr8-05, 08:08 PM | #6 |
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Going back to the originial question, Does anybody know how to do this one? The answer is that you use induction. The basis will work for 0 giving:
[tex]\frac{(p-1)!}{0!(p-1)!} =1=(-1)^0 [/tex] |
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