- #1
ktpr2
- 192
- 0
[tex]f(x) = -50x^2+5[/tex]
[tex]g(x) = (sin 5x)/x[/tex]
[tex]h(x) = x^2+5[/tex]
I'm trying to find the limit of g(x) as x --> 0
I know that f(x) and h(x) are less than and greater than, respectively, than g(x) but I am unsure how to prove that w/o abusing the concept of infinity. How would I prove this so that i can show that
[tex]f(x)\leqq g(x) \leqq h(x)[/tex]
and use the squeeze theorem to show that the limit as x --> 0 for g(x) = 5 because it's also 5 for f(x) and h(x)? Alternatively, I'm sure, is there a better way to go about this?
[tex]g(x) = (sin 5x)/x[/tex]
[tex]h(x) = x^2+5[/tex]
I'm trying to find the limit of g(x) as x --> 0
I know that f(x) and h(x) are less than and greater than, respectively, than g(x) but I am unsure how to prove that w/o abusing the concept of infinity. How would I prove this so that i can show that
[tex]f(x)\leqq g(x) \leqq h(x)[/tex]
and use the squeeze theorem to show that the limit as x --> 0 for g(x) = 5 because it's also 5 for f(x) and h(x)? Alternatively, I'm sure, is there a better way to go about this?