How Do Wavefunctions in Coordinate and Momentum Spaces Form an Orthonormal Set?

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The discussion centers on the wavefunctions of a particle in both coordinate space, denoted as Ψx(x'), and momentum space, denoted as Φp(p'). It establishes that these wavefunctions, when considered for different positions x0, form an orthonormal set, meaning they are mutually perpendicular and normalized. The Fourier transform is identified as the mathematical operation that allows the conversion of Ψx0(x') into Φx0(p'), facilitating the transition between coordinate and momentum representations of the wavefunction.

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What's the wave function in coordinate space Ψx0(x') of a particle (in 1-D) located at a certain position x0? What about the wave function Φx0(p') in momentum space? Now, consider the totality of these wave functions for different values of x0. Do they form an orthonormal set?

The only thing I know is that if I know Ψx0(x'), I can Fourier transform it to Φx0(p')? But what's Ψx0(x')? I'm really confused.

Thanks in advance! :smile:
 
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The wavefunction of a particle is a mathematical representation of its quantum state. It is a complex-valued function that describes the probability amplitude of finding the particle at a particular position or momentum.

In coordinate space, the wavefunction is denoted as Ψx(x'), where x' represents the position of the particle and x represents the position variable. This means that the value of Ψx(x') at a specific x' gives the probability amplitude of finding the particle at that position.

Similarly, in momentum space, the wavefunction is denoted as Φp(p'), where p' represents the momentum of the particle and p represents the momentum variable. The value of Φp(p') at a specific p' gives the probability amplitude of finding the particle with that momentum.

Now, if we consider the totality of these wavefunctions for different values of x0, where x0 represents the position of the particle, then yes, they do form an orthonormal set. This means that they are perpendicular to each other and have a magnitude of 1, which is a requirement for a valid wavefunction.

To answer your question, if you know Ψx0(x'), then you can indeed Fourier transform it to obtain Φx0(p'). This is because the Fourier transform is a mathematical operation that converts a function in one domain (coordinate space in this case) to a function in another domain (momentum space). It allows us to switch between representations of the same wavefunction.

I hope this helps to clarify your confusion. If you have any further questions, please feel free to ask.
 

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