Concept of the pigeonhole principle

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the infinite pigeonhole principle and its implications for constructing one-to-one functions between sets of differing cardinalities. Participants explore the concept of cardinality, the definition of "length," and the application of these ideas to specific mappings, particularly involving the positive rationals and natural numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the possibility of constructing a one-to-one function from a larger set to a smaller codomain, referencing the infinite pigeonhole principle.
  • Another participant emphasizes that cardinality is the relevant measure of size for one-to-one functions, rather than "length."
  • There is a discussion about the interpretation of "length" in the context of infinite sets, with one participant asserting that it is not significant since intervals contain infinitely many points.
  • One participant presents an example of mapping positive rationals to natural numbers using prime factorization, claiming it is a one-to-one mapping.
  • Another participant mentions the construction of a Cartesian plane to illustrate a one-to-one function between values of x and y within a specified range, referencing the Schröder-Bernstein theorem to support their argument.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the interpretation of "length" and its relevance to cardinality. There is no consensus on the application of the pigeonhole principle to one-to-one functions, and multiple competing perspectives remain regarding the examples provided.

Contextual Notes

Some participants' statements rely on specific definitions of cardinality and length, which may not be universally accepted. The discussion includes unresolved questions about the applicability of the pigeonhole principle to one-to-one functions and the nature of the mappings discussed.

irony of truth
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This question applies with the so called "infinite" pigeonhole principle. Why is it possible to construct a one-one function out of two sets where the codomain has a length smaller than the length of the domain?
 
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Could you go into a lot more detail? It's hard to answer appropriately if I don't know just where you're confused.

The only measure of "size" that matters for one-to-one functions is cardinality.
 
"length" what does that mean in this context?
 
Hello...

This is what I understood so far...

I was able to find that in the infinite case, "If n holes contains an infinite number of points, then at least one of the holes contain an infinite number. In particular, if the holes are labeled or ordered from 1 to n, then there must be a first hole with infinitely many points in it."

What confuses me is regarding whether this concept I have researched applies to a one-one function...

I was thinking of cramming Q+, the positive rationals into N the natural numbers with space left over to do it infinitely more times. Let p/q always be a reduced fraction in Q+ and define the map Q+--->N;p/q--->(2^p)(3^q). I can know that
this is a 1-1 map by the fundamenntal theorem of arithmetic. (unique prime
factorization) and no number that has any other prime in it's decomposition
other than 2 or 3 is in the range.

Also, I can construct a cartesian plane with all the values of y between -1 and 1, exclusively, ie., (-1,1) and all the values of x indefinitely. From here, I can assigned a one-one function in which every value in x corresponds to a unique value of y.
 
Length here, is not that important since it doesn't determine size of the interval, since the interval will always have infinitely many points...
 
irony of truth said:
This is what I understood so far...

I was able to find that in the infinite case, "If n holes contains an infinite number of points, then at least one of the holes contain an infinite number. In particular, if the holes are labeled or ordered from 1 to n, then there must be a first hole with infinitely many points in it."
You can also think it of as an infinite set broken into a finite number of subsets, then one of the subsets must be an infinite set.

What confuses me is regarding whether this concept I have researched applies to a one-one function...
Pardon?

I was thinking of cramming Q+, the positive rationals into N the natural numbers with space left over to do it infinitely more times. Let p/q always be a reduced fraction in Q+ and define the map Q+--->N;p/q--->(2^p)(3^q). I can know that
this is a 1-1 map by the fundamenntal theorem of arithmetic. (unique prime
factorization) and no number that has any other prime in it's decomposition
other than 2 or 3 is in the range.
? Whats the problem ?

Also, I can construct a cartesian plane with all the values of y between -1 and 1, exclusively, ie., (-1,1) and all the values of x indefinitely. From here, I can assigned a one-one function in which every value in x corresponds to a unique value of y.
Yes this is true, it follows from the schroeder-bernstein theorem. It goes to show how dense the set of (-1,1) can be.

-- AI
 

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