Force: Mass m Velocity Change from v1 to v2

[chandran]

A block of mass m is resting on a frictionless surface and a push is given to it along the surface.

Now because of the push the velocity of the mass changes from v1 to v2. ofcourse v1 is zero. So this is what that push has done to the mass m. This push is called force. so force gives a result in which the mass m changes its velocity from v1 to v2.

I am defining force=m*(v2-v1).

Any thoughts on this further

 

[quasar987]

so according to your definition, a push that makes the velocity of the mass go from v1 to v2 in 1 second is the same force as a push that makes the velocity of the mass go from v1 to v2 in 4 hours. this is not the way force is defined in Newtonian machanics.

However you may, if you please, define 'force' the way you did, and develop chandranian mechanics from there. Have fun

 

[HallsofIvy]

chandran, I'm not sure what your point is. As quasar987 pointed out, you are free to "define" terms any way you want, but this is not the standard definition of "force". In fact, m(v2-v1), "mass times the change in velocity" is normally called "impulse"- the change in the momentum over a certain time. Force is normally defined as the "rate[\b] of change" of momentum at a given instant, not the total change of a time period.