How can I prove the decreasing inequality of a sequence in calculus?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the decreasing inequality of a sequence defined by integrals and specific values. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of calculus concepts, particularly focusing on sequences and inequalities.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a sequence defined by specific values and integrals, proposing that the sequence is decreasing and providing expressions for its terms.
  • The participant expresses difficulty in proving the decreasing nature of the sequence using mathematical induction and derivative comparisons.
  • Another participant provides a general inequality related to integrals, suggesting a potential approach to the problem.
  • Additional comments express appreciation for the discussion and indicate a need for further understanding of calculus concepts.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on how to prove the inequality, and multiple approaches are suggested without resolution.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes unresolved mathematical steps and assumptions regarding the properties of the sequence and integrals involved.

relinquished™
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I encountered this problem in one of my math lecture notebooks; Our professor didnt show how it was done, so that leaves me clueless. The problem was to show that the sequence {a_n} defined by
[tex] a_1 = 1, <br /> a_2 = \int^2_1 \frac{dx}{x},<br /> a_3 = \frac{1}{2},<br /> a_4 = \int^3_2 \frac{dx}{x} ,<br /> ...[/tex]

When generalized gives For any natural number n,

[tex] a_{2n-1} = \frac{1}{n} [/tex]
[tex] a_{2n} = \int^{n+1}_n \frac{dx}{x} = \ln x |^{n+1}_{n} = \ln \frac{n+1}{n}[/tex]

is decreasing, that is,
[tex] \frac{1}{n} > \ln \frac{n+1}{n} > \frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]

I've tried math induction but I'm stuck at the (ii) part of math induction, and i tried comparing their derivatives, but I can't conclude anything from doing so. I've tried to compute for their areas, but that got me nowhere. I've graphed their functions using a graphing program, and I saw that it is true, but I would like know how i can prove this without graphing...

thanx in advance for all help and advice on my problem
 
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when a<b
[tex](b-a)\min(f)\leq\int_a^b f dx\leq(b-a)\max(f)[/tex]
 
Lovely! Absolutely lovely!
 


whoa... that is absolutely lovely... boy do I need a refresh on my calculus... :smile:

thanx lurflurf! you're a lifesaver :)
 

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