Castilla
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I am trying to follow a proof of
[tex]\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x^2}dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}[/tex] but the first impasse I find is that, "with the change of variable" [tex]\sqrt{n}x = y[/tex] they justify this equality:
[tex]{\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-y^2}dy = \int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-nx^2}dx[/tex].
Maybe you can help me to see how they did it? Thanks.
[tex]\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x^2}dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}[/tex] but the first impasse I find is that, "with the change of variable" [tex]\sqrt{n}x = y[/tex] they justify this equality:
[tex]{\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-y^2}dy = \int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-nx^2}dx[/tex].
Maybe you can help me to see how they did it? Thanks.