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Old Oct4-05, 01:03 AM                  #1
EvLer

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L'Hospital question

I was just wondering... it is used when the limit is of indetermined form: 0/0 or inf/inf, but is it valid to apply it to a "regular" limit? technically it seems to give the same answer...
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Old Oct4-05, 01:21 AM                  #2
CarlB
 
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If I recall, his rule was to the effect that the ratio of the limits, when the limits are 0 or LaTeX Code: \\infty , is the ratio of the derivatives. That said, you certainly cannot apply it to a regular limit.

As an example, consider the limit:

Lim x->0 (cos(x)+3) /(x+4)

It is clear that the above limit is 4/5.

On the other hand,

Lim x-> 0 (-sin(x))/(1) = 0.

Carl
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Old Oct4-05, 01:30 AM                  #3
EvLer

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Oh, ok thanks...
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