How do you verify that v/c=pc/E?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the verification of the equation v/c = pc/E, exploring its applicability to different contexts, particularly in relation to free particles versus those in potential fields. The conversation includes theoretical considerations and mathematical relationships relevant to energy and momentum.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest starting points for verification, including the definitions of momentum (p = γm₀v) and energy (E = γm₀c²).
  • One participant notes that the original question may only apply to free particles, questioning the context of the inquiry.
  • Another participant argues that in a potential field, the relationship changes, stating that (E - Φ)² = p²c² - m₀²c⁴, leading to v/c = pc/K instead of v/c = pc/E.
  • A later reply expresses gratitude for the clarification regarding the applicability of the equation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the applicability of the equation to free versus non-free particles, indicating that multiple competing perspectives remain unresolved.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations regarding the assumptions made about the conditions under which the equation holds, particularly in relation to potential fields and the definitions of kinetic energy.

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How do you verify that v/c=pc/E?
 
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HINT:

[tex]p=\gamma m_{0} v[/tex]

[tex]E=\gamma m_{0} c^{2}[/tex]

Daniel.
 
Your question is too short, and BTW only applies to free particles. I don't know what you are starting with. Or even whether you mean experimental verification. As Dextrecioby points out, if you already know expressions for p and E, the result is trivial. Another possible starting point is that you know only
[tex]E^2=p^2c^2-m_0^2c^4[/tex]
and Hamilton's equations. Then use H=E(p,x), and
[tex]v=dx/dt=\partial H/\partial p[/tex]
or the vector generalization.
 
@@a
why does it only apply to free particles?
 
If a particle is in a potential field [itex]\Phi(x,y,z)[/itex], then
[tex](E-\Phi)^2=p^2c^2-m_0^2c^4[/tex]
so v/c is not equal to pc/E. One can define "kinetic energy" as [itex]K=E-\Phi(x,y,z)[/itex], then v/c=pc/K. That's just one example of non-free.
 
i see... thank you very much!
 

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