Why Does Perpendicular Torque Not Change Angular Momentum Magnitude?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of torque and its relationship with angular momentum, specifically addressing why the magnitude of angular momentum remains unchanged when torque is applied perpendicularly. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the explanation provided in their textbook and seeks clarification on the underlying principles.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster questions the reasoning behind the perpendicular relationship between torque and angular momentum, seeking a clearer understanding of how this results in no change in magnitude. Some participants suggest that a more complex mathematical framework may be necessary to fully grasp the concept, while others mention the utility of diagrams and visual aids.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different ways to conceptualize the problem. While some guidance has been offered regarding the need for visual representations and further reading, there is no explicit consensus on the explanation of the phenomenon at this stage.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that a deeper understanding may require knowledge of 3-D vector mathematics or similar concepts, which may not be accessible to all. There is also mention of previous discussions that may provide additional context, though they are not directly referenced in detail.

Kenny Lee
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Hi! Simple question I've got to ask.

The cause of precession is the torque due to weight, causing a change in angular momentum. It's stated in my textbook that the angular momentum's magnitude remains unchanged because the torque, and hence, dL, is perpendicular to the angular momentum's direction.
However, it doesn't explain why perpendicular summation of L and dL results in zero change of L's magnitude. If anyone could help clarify, thanks a lot.
Lemme know if my Q doesn't make sense. I'll try rewording if that is the case! Chill.
 
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Hi,
The proper explanation of this phenomenon is best saved for when you can do 3-D vector matrices, or similar calculus. Until then, you could read a conceptual description I made a few months ago. Unfortunately, the guy I responded to then turned out to be a banned crackpot, so I'm glad that the explanation has a second chance to not be a "waste of time."

see here:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=74561
 
That complicated? And to think I was hoping for something light and easy to munch on before sleep. Anyway, thanks for advice!
 
A simple description would require drawing diagrams and I just can't do it well on the computer. Although 3-D CG graphics do a great job at demonstrating the cause of precession. Try googling.
 
Kenny Lee said:
It's stated in my textbook that the angular momentum's magnitude remains unchanged because the torque, and hence, dL, is perpendicular to the angular momentum's direction.
However, it doesn't explain why perpendicular summation of L and dL results in zero change of L's magnitude.
The same mathematical situation occurs in uniform circular motion: the acceleration is towards the center, thus dv is always perpendicular to the velocity (which is tangent to the circle). The speed never changes, just the direction.

But please do study Chi Meson's conceptual description of precession; you'll learn something.
 

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