Calculating fourier coefficients

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating Fourier coefficients for the function f(x) = x, specifically addressing the evaluation of integrals involving the sine function as n approaches infinity. Participants are exploring the implications of using infinity in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to evaluate an integral involving -ixSin(nx) as n approaches infinity and expresses confusion about the validity of this approach. Some participants question the rationale behind using infinity in this context and seek clarification on the definition of the Fourier series and the role of n.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing differing perspectives on the use of infinity in the argument. Some guidance has been offered regarding the interpretation of n as an integer, but there is no explicit consensus on the original poster's approach or the implications of their question.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be a misunderstanding regarding the definition of the Fourier series and the treatment of n in relation to infinity. The discussion highlights the need for clarity on the mathematical definitions involved.

gravenewworld
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I need to find the Fourier series for the function f(x)=x. I have come across trying to find the integral from -pi to pi of -ixSin(nx). How do I go about evaluating this integral when n is infinity? I seem to only be able to find integrals in an integral table where n is an integer, but not when n could be infinity.
 
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Why in the world would you want to put infinity in the argument? It doesn't even mean anything.
You can calculate any Fourier coefficient you need, what more could you ask for?
 
Why in the world would you want to put infinity in the argument?

Maybe I am misunderstanding something here. But the Fourier series definition I have for f(x) is Sum from n=-infinity to positive infinity of (f(x),en)en where en is the complete orthonormal seqeunce (2pi)^-1/2 *e^inx and the inner product ( , ) is for the hilbert space L^2(-pi, pi). So when n is +/- infinity how would I go about calculating the inner product for L^2?
 
Yes, you are misunderstanding! Saying that n "goes from -infinity to infinity" means that n takes on all integer values. n is never "infinity" because n is an integer and "infinity" is not even a real number, much less an integer.
 

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