Why is integral notation sometimes written in a strange way?

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SUMMARY

The discussion clarifies that the notation for integrals, specifically \(\int dx\,f\left(x\right)\) versus \(\int f\left(x\right)\,dx\), is a matter of stylistic preference rather than mathematical necessity. Both forms are equivalent and yield the same results in calculus. This notation variation is often seen in physics literature, reflecting different conventions rather than any fundamental difference in meaning.

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amcavoy
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This is a strange question, but why (in some physics books) are integrals given as:

[tex]\int dx\,f\left(x\right)[/tex]

rather than

[tex]\int f\left(x\right)\,dx[/tex]

??
 
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No real reason, they are equivalent statements...
 

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