I'm not a physicist!
Just wondering what it is like on the edge of the universe? how many dimensions will be there, what force will be acted upon a close object, and what relativity will become?
I'm assuming the universe is euclidian (eucklidean? euclidean? my English sucks.) not hyperbolic or...
ok I just got a kinda 'crazy' idea that would explain the arithmetic paradox.
if say, ∞/∞=A and 0/0=A;
pick 2 random numbers from A, just 2 and 3;
so
∞/∞=2
∞/∞=3
0/0=2
0/0=3
however 2\neq3;
∞/∞=2\neq3=∞/∞;
so ∞/∞\neq∞/∞, same goes for 0/0\neq0/0
so is it possible to say that:
∞\neq∞...
Question: as title says.
I'm not a physicist at all and I do not know much about how people obtained the big bang theory from red shift. So here is what I thought from red shift:
In a time period t1, a distant body emits a light wave with a certain amount of energy with n oscilations(I dont...
Is there an alternative symbol that can be used instead of '=', for a different logical expression? a=b means a and b are equivalent in quantity, however infinity and 0 are not ordinary quantities?
I can see that infinity does not 'equal' to infinity
(inf/inf=A)
but does 0 'equal' to 0???
(0/0=A)!
there are values other than 1 in A,
then is 0=0 false?
Trying to find a equation to explain it.
let there be y=0*x
there are 4 value ranges on the real plane:
I. x<0 y=inf
II. x=0 y=A
III. x>0 y=0
IV. x=inf y=A
as we can see here the value of y is like a sine wave;
(Although A is not a number.)
inf --> A --> 0 --> A --> inf --> A ....
so, does A represent a intermediate range of...
The red part is the wrong part.
By reverse you use e as a index for exponentiation, so lets say :
ln a = ln b - c
e^(ln a) = e^(ln b - c)
u got your exponentialtion wrong.
so if those things are true, then many of the limits can be viewed in a different perspective.
e.g.
lim->infinity (1+1/m)^m=e
u couldnt just substitute m=infinity into the equation;
however if we do that:
(1+0)^infinity=e
1^infinity=e
it makes sence now since e is a member of A.
thinking from the Riemann Sphere: can the real projective line be described as a circular graph?
So all the arithmetic calculations can be done via angular calculations, and 0 or infinity would have a unique angle from the axis?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_projective_line
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=591892
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=592694
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=530207 [Broken]
Read these first before you criticise me...
x^3+bx=c
x(x^2+b)=c
x(x+ib)(x-ib)=c
ln (x(x+ib)(x-ib))=ln c
ln x + ln (x+ib) + ln (x-ib)=ln c
ln x + ln |x| + iarg(z) + ln |x| - iarg(z)=ln c
ln x + ln x + ln x = ln c
3ln x = ln c
ln x = (ln c)/3
x=e^(ln c)/3
if x^a=b (a,b are constants)
then there are two ways of finding x: root and log
so for example, x^2=4
by root:
(x^2)^(1/2)=(4)^(1/2)
x=\pm2
by log:
2 ln (x) = 2 ln 2
x=2
but it is yet impossible to obtain the negative x from logs. How are you supposed to do it? And heres a few...
I'm a High School student in NZ, and Im going to the local university next year. However I dont know what subject should I choose, I perfer pure mathematics, although engineering or computer programming may have much higher incomes so Im considering them. I am very good at mathematics (I studied...
Yes thank you Chiro. However I know this and this is not what I meant to find out.
What I am trying to do is to define the 'undefined' for things like 0/0 and ∞/∞ in the real projective plane.
I recall that 'undefined' A , and A has these properties:
A \bigcap R, and every number in R suits...
Is there a theory about one-sided "equations"?
I am working on infinity recently. Trying to define the 'indirect' result of infinity as 'range of numbers'. So its like: if there is a set A of infinite elements, f(x)=a\wedgeb\wedgec\wedged..... (a,b,c,d...\inA);
However, one cannot say a=f(x)...
sorry my fault cause I am still in high school so a lot of advanced math things are still a blur to me. And I do not know how to speak proper mathematical language.
Anyway:
a\sqrt[]{}n , n\subsetℝ;n>0
as a gets bigger , a√n converges to 1;
so can this be true:
∞√n = 1...
Yes, I understand what ∞ means, that was just a proof.
and as I said, infinity is logically impossible to approach, so does that make 1^∞=e true, since the calculation is not logical, one cannot say the answer is logical.
(1+1/m)^m=e
I asked a question related to infinity a few weeks ago, but the answer I got really lead me to a confusion. Is there any way, that infinity can be compared in another plane or whatever. So here is something paradox if you treat infinity as it is in the set of real numbers...
I was trying to understand superlog and superroot but I get only 3/4 of them. Can anyone just explain, in a non-textbook way, such that:
I can understand without any post-calc knowledge
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Superlog
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or just explain...
c = a^b = |a|^b x e^(ib) ?
so if a= -1, b=2 c=1; then |-1|^2*e^(2i) = e^2i?
i suppose that can only be e^2i∏ which equals to 1.
and whats this formula called?
Gelfond–Schneider theorem can be seen here(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gelfond%27s_theorem) wiki.
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Given a simple calculation:
a^b
where a<0;
and let b be a fraction : u/v
so there are 3 possible ways of u...
1 to the power of ∞ =e ?????
Let there be function f(x):
f(x)=(b+1)^(b+1)/(b+1!)/[(b^b)/b!]
--an example of f(99): 100^100/100!/(99^99/99!)
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and as b gets larger, f(x) converges to e.
so we have:
lim b→ ∞...