Math, I really don't see how this theorem is really the mean value theorem. Isn't the mean value theorem f(c)(b-a) which is really (1/b-a)(b-a)? Grr (I get furstrated when I get confused)...getting confused...:devil:
Can someone break down these theorems for me please because my book is horrible at explaining them. The examples the book gives shows the initial question but then the answer and none of the steps in between even on the very simple questions. I'm confused.