How can we prove 0.9999... is equal to 1?

  • Thread starter losin
  • Start date
In summary, showing that 0.9999... is a supremum of numbers smaller than 1 can be done using a rigorous definition for a repeating decimal and the Dedekind's cut principle. If you want to create a hard proof of the statement, you first need to give a rigorous definition for a repeating decimal.
  • #1
losin
12
0
0.9999... = 1

i want to show 0.9999...=1

by showing 0.9999... is a supremum of numbers smaller than 1,

i would be able to prove it.

how can i show 0.999... is a supremum of numbers smaller than 1?
 
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  • #2


This is a common question on the forums. Do a search.

If you want to create a hard proof of the statement: 0.999... = 1, you first need to give a rigorous definition for a repeating decimal. The usual definition is it's the LIMIT of the sequence created by appending digits one at a time:

So 0.9999... is the limit of the sequence 0, 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, 0.9999, ...

Using this definition, the proof is simply to show that that sequence converges to 1.
 
  • #3


i want to show 0.9999... is strictly same as 1,

not sequence 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ... converges to 1.
 
  • #4


1.00..01 > 0.999... > 0.99...9 for all finite decimals. Both the limits tend to 1. By the Dedekind's cut principle, 0.999... = 1. Q.E.D.
 
  • #5


losin said:
i want to show 0.9999... is strictly same as 1,

not sequence 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ... converges to 1.

Yes, but what is 0.999...?

It's the limit of the sequence 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ... .

Therefore, showing that sequence converges to 1 is the proof.
 
  • #6


can i show 0.9999...=sup{x|real number less than 1} ?
 
  • #7


losin said:
can i show 0.9999...=sup{x|real number less than 1} ?

See my above post.
 
  • #8


Dickfore said:
1.00..01
What could you possibly mean by this?
 
  • #9


Landau said:
What could you possibly mean by this?

[tex]
1 + \frac{1}{10^{n}}
[/tex]
 
  • #10


1/3 = .3333333...
Multiply both sides by 3 and see what you get.

By the way, this is assuming that you have established that 1/3 = .33333... in the first place.
 
  • #11


Anonymous217 said:
1/3 = .3333333...
Multiply both sides by 3 and see what you get.

By the way, this is assuming that you have established that 1/3 = .33333...

And also, [itex]3 \times 0.333... = 0.999...[/itex]
 
  • #12


^I don't get the point of your post, but okay.
 
  • #13


Anonymous217 said:
^I don't get the point of your post, but okay.

We start multiplying from the rightmost digit. What is the rightmost digit of 0.333...?
 
  • #14


You only start from the rightmost digit because it's convenient not to have the carries messing up what you've already written down. I quite often multiply from left to right.

But really its just the result that if [itex]\Sigma a_n[/itex] converges, [itex]\Sigma ka_n[/itex] converges to [itex]k\Sigma a_n[/itex].
 
  • #15


Martin Rattigan said:
I quite often multiply from left to right.
lol.
 
  • #16


It saves working out how much space to leave before you start writing it down. Mind you I do quite often get it wrong, but then that applies if I go the other way as well.
 
  • #17


Please refrain from off-topic posting. The OP wanted a rigorous proof and you are talking about your arithmetical adventures.
 
  • #18


Sorry.

The comment about convergence is a proof. That is [itex]0.\={3}[/itex] is defined as [itex]\sum_{0}^{\infty}3\times 10^{-r}[/itex], so if you've proved this converges to [itex]\frac{1}{3}[/itex] you can say [itex]\sum_{0}^{\infty}3\times 3\times 10^{-r}=\sum_{0}^{\infty}9\times 10^{-r}=0.\={9}[/itex] (by definition) converges to [itex]3\times \frac{1}{3}=1[/itex].

This doesn't mean that showing [itex]0.\={3}=\frac{1}{3}[/itex] is any easier than showing [itex]0.\={9}=1[/itex] in the first place, so I wouldn't personally recommend this route.
 
Last edited:
  • #19


Martin Rattigan said:
Sorry.

The comment about convergence is a proof. That is [itex]0.\={3}[/itex] is defined as [itex]\sum_{0}^{\infty}3\times 10^{-r}[/itex], so if you've proved this converges to [itex]\frac{1}{3}[/itex] you can say [itex]\sum_{0}^{\infty}3\times 3\times 10^{-r}=\sum_{0}^{\infty}9\times 10^{-r}=0.\={9}[/itex] (by definition) converges to [itex]3\times \frac{1}{3}=1[/itex].

This doesn't mean that showing [itex]0.\={3}=\frac{1}{3}[/itex] is any easier than showing [itex]0.\={9}=1[/itex] in the first place, so I wouldn't personally recommend this route.

Is this proof acceptable?
[tex] 0.\={9} = 0.999... = 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + ... = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^k} = \frac{9/10}{1-1/10} = 1[/tex]
Using the infinite geometric series formula, of course.
 
  • #20


That would obviously depend on losin.

The formula for the sum of an infinite gp depends on some basic results about limits, e.g. [itex]|x|<1[/itex] implies [itex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}x^n=0[/itex].

It sounds to me as if losin may be working from axioms for the reals at a stage before much in that way has been proved, in which case he may prefer a direct proof from the axioms using the fact that the [itex]n^{th}[/itex] partial sum for [itex]0.\={9}[/itex] is [itex]1-\frac{1}{10^n}[/itex]. This seems to fit in more with his posted ideas.

When I said that showing [itex]0.\={3}=\frac{1}{3}[/itex] is no easier than showing [itex]0.\={9}=1[/itex], I didn't in any way mean to imply either was particularly hard, so I'm sure losin will soon settle on a proof he finds satisfactory even if it doesn't necessarily correspond with any of the suggestions on the forum.
 

1. Is 0.9999 exactly equal to 1?

Yes, 0.9999 is exactly equal to 1. This is because the decimal representation of 0.9999 is a repeating decimal, where the 9s continue infinitely. When we convert this to a fraction, it becomes 9/9, which simplifies to 1. Therefore, 0.9999 is equal to 1.

2. How can we prove that 0.9999 is equal to 1?

There are several ways to prove that 0.9999 is equal to 1. One way is to use algebraic manipulation and convert 0.9999 to a fraction, which simplifies to 1. Another way is to use limits in calculus, where the limit of 0.9999 as it approaches infinity is equal to 1. Both methods show that 0.9999 is indeed equal to 1.

3. Can we use mathematical properties to prove that 0.9999 is equal to 1?

Yes, we can use mathematical properties to prove that 0.9999 is equal to 1. One property that can be used is the fact that any number divided by itself is equal to 1. Since 0.9999 is equal to 9/9, we can divide both the numerator and denominator by 9, resulting in 1/1, which is equal to 1.

4. Are there any real-life applications of proving that 0.9999 is equal to 1?

Yes, there are real-life applications of proving that 0.9999 is equal to 1. For example, in mathematics and physics, the concept of limits and infinite decimals is used to explain and solve various problems. Understanding that 0.9999 is equal to 1 also helps in understanding and solving these problems.

5. Are there any misconceptions about the concept of 0.9999 equaling 1?

Yes, there are a few common misconceptions about the concept of 0.9999 equaling 1. Some people may think that since 0.9999 has a never-ending string of decimals, it can never be exactly equal to 1. However, as explained earlier, this is not true and can be proven through various mathematical methods. Another misconception is that 0.9999 is just a close approximation of 1, but in reality, it is exactly equal to 1.

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