- #1
johann1301
- 217
- 1
0=i2pie !?
We know that any number to the power of zero equals one. Ex; e^0=1
But we also know that eulers number (e=2.718...) to the power of i (√-1) times 2∏ equals one; e^i2∏=1
So we have to equations that both equals 1. That means that e^0=e^i2∏ and that;
0=i2∏
Is this right? (it can't be?)
We know that any number to the power of zero equals one. Ex; e^0=1
But we also know that eulers number (e=2.718...) to the power of i (√-1) times 2∏ equals one; e^i2∏=1
So we have to equations that both equals 1. That means that e^0=e^i2∏ and that;
0=i2∏
Is this right? (it can't be?)