Integrate 1/(x^2n + 1) with De Moivre's Theorem

  • Thread starter FedEx
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In summary, the problem asks for an indefinite integral in thex-axis from -infinity to +infinity, using De Moivre's theorem. The user tried a few substitutions, but eventually found themselves stuck. They eventually decided to factor the denominator of the integral using De Moivre's theorem, and reached the solution after finding the x-coordinate of the cosine and the sine of the given angle.
  • #1
FedEx
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Homework Statement



[tex]\int\frac{1}{x^{2n} + 1}[/tex]

Homework Equations



De moivre's theorem

The Attempt at a Solution



I am sorry moderators. I had posted this problem earlier on PF but i got no replies so i had to do it again.

I have tried almost every possible substitution. But in vain. So just one way left. Factorize the denominator using de moivre's theorem. I don't know why i am using de moivre but i do think that we may get some ease doing this integral by this method
 
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  • #2
Did the question state specifically to use De Moivre's theorem?
What substitutions did you happen to use?

If you used De Moivre's theorem where did you reach when you put [itex]x=cos\theta + isin\theta[/itex] ?
 
  • #3
Are you doing the definite integral from -infinity to +infinity? In that case, sure, write down the poles using deMoivre and use the residue theorem.
 
  • #4
Dick said:
Are you doing the definite integral from -infinity to +infinity? In that case, sure, write down the poles using deMoivre and use the residue theorem.

No. Its an indefinite integral. And we haven't been taught with the residue theorem.
 
  • #5
rock.freak667 said:
Did the question state specifically to use De Moivre's theorem?
What substitutions did you happen to use?

If you used De Moivre's theorem where did you reach when you put [itex]x=cos\theta + isin\theta[/itex] ?

[tex] x = (-1)^{\frac{1}{2n}} [/tex]

[tex]\int\prod^{2n-1}_{k=1}\frac{1}{(x - cos\frac{2k\pi + \pi}{2n} + isin\frac{2k\pi + \pi}{2n})}[/tex]
 
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  • #6
Well, you say De-Moivere's?
If you were to define this integral by I(n).
Then I(0)=x (upto a constant), do this by induction and by parts.
That will do the trick.
I(1)=arctg(x), I(2)=(do it by residue theorem for 1/(1+x^4)) for I(3)=S(1/(x^6+1)), the same.

You can do this with De-Moivere, but I need to think it over.
 
  • #7
I think you need to do the substituition x=cosh(t) or sinh(t) and use the identity cosh^2(t)-sinh^2(t)=1.
 
  • #8
I confess that I would solve this problem with power series. But that's probably a bad idea if you haven't learned methods for manipulating series efficiently, and I'm not sure if I got the answer in the simplest form either.
 
  • #9
loop quantum gravity said:
Well, you say De-Moivere's?
If you were to define this integral by I(n).
Then I(0)=x (upto a constant), do this by induction and by parts.
That will do the trick.
I(1)=arctg(x), I(2)=(do it by residue theorem for 1/(1+x^4)) for I(3)=S(1/(x^6+1)), the same.

You can do this with De-Moivere, but I need to think it over.

We have been not taught with hyper trigonometric functions nor we have been taught to the residue theorem. How ever i would love to learn that. Any good resource which you could recommend me with? And would it be able for you to elaborate the above quoted post?
 
  • #10
Hurkyl said:
I confess that I would solve this problem with power series. But that's probably a bad idea if you haven't learned methods for manipulating series efficiently, and I'm not sure if I got the answer in the simplest form either.

To hell with the answer.I would love to solve the sum even if the answer come in complex numbers. But you could possibly tell me what do you mean by power series.
 

What is De Moivre's Theorem?

De Moivre's Theorem is a mathematical theorem that allows for the simplification of complex numbers raised to a power. It states that for any complex number z, when raised to the nth power, it can be expressed as (cosθ + i sinθ)^n, where θ is the angle between the complex number and the real axis.

How is De Moivre's Theorem used to integrate 1/(x^2n + 1)?

De Moivre's Theorem can be used to rewrite 1/(x^2n + 1) as 1/(cos^2nθ + sin^2nθ), which can then be integrated using trigonometric substitution. This allows for the integration of rational functions with complex powers.

What are the steps to integrate 1/(x^2n + 1) using De Moivre's Theorem?

The steps to integrate 1/(x^2n + 1) using De Moivre's Theorem are:

  1. Rewrite the function as 1/(cos^2nθ + sin^2nθ).
  2. Apply the substitution x = tanθ.
  3. Use the identity cos^2θ = 1/(1+tan^2θ) to simplify the integral.
  4. Apply the power reduction formula to further simplify the integral.
  5. Integrate the resulting rational function using partial fractions.
  6. Substitute back in x for tanθ to get the final answer.

What are some common applications of De Moivre's Theorem in science?

De Moivre's Theorem is commonly used in many areas of science, including physics, engineering, and signal processing, to simplify complex calculations involving powers of complex numbers. It is also used in the study of periodic phenomena, such as waves and oscillations.

Are there any limitations to using De Moivre's Theorem for integration?

De Moivre's Theorem can only be applied to integrate rational functions with complex powers. It cannot be used for functions with irrational or transcendental powers. Additionally, the integration process can become complicated for higher powers, making it impractical for some cases. In these situations, other integration techniques may be more efficient.

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