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-Jacob

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-Jacob

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http://mathworld.wolfram.com/SecondFundamentalTheoremofCalculus.html

In my book, this is simply called "the fundamental theorem of calculus", and mathworld's first t. of c. is mentioned later than this, so I can understand your confusion.

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Its hand stuff!

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Math Is Hard

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Did you try any of the problems yet?

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FTC#2 says

[itex] \int^b_a f(x)dx = F(b) - F(a) [/itex]

where the anti-derivative of f(x) is F(x)

So what you are probably using this Thrm for is evaluating definite integrals (ones with A and B stated).

So what you do is find the anti-derivative of f(x) i.e. F(x), and then evaluate that anti-derivative at a and b, then take the absolute value of their difference.

For example if we wanted to evaluate:

[itex] \int^5_1 3x^2dx [/itex]

we would first find the anti derivative of 3x^2.

Which is x^3.

Then we would evaluate x^3 at 1 and 5 which gives us, 1 and 125. We subtract 1 from 125 and get 124, hence:

[itex] \int^5_1 3x^2dx = 124[/itex]

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-Jacob

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mathwonk

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Recall that G is lipschitz continuous on [a,b] if there exists a constant K such that for all points u,v in [a,b] we have |G(v) - G(u)| <= K|v-u|.

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JasonRox

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y=x^n

dy/dx=nx^n-1

Is that it?

I wrote general proof for the derivative of a function x^n. Using limits of course, and I ended with nx^n-1, which is what you are suppose to get.

I never seen the proof yet, and it would be great to do it independently.

So, what is the 1st Fundamental Theorem(in most books)?

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mathwonk

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in most books it says that if f is continuous on [a,b] and G(x) is the integral of f from a to x, then G is differentiable on [a,b] and G'(x) = f(x) for every x in [a,b].

The more general statement is that if f is a Riemann integrable function on [a,b] and G(x) again is the injtegral of f from a to x, then G is Lipschitz continuous, and G is differentiable with G'(x) = f(x) at those points where f is continuous.

Then to derive the 2nd thm from the first you need the generalized mean value theorem, that a function G which is lipschitz continuous and has derivative equal to zero almost everywhere (i.e. except on a set of measure zero) is constant.

in most books the 2nd thm just says that if f is continuous on [a,b] and G is continuous on [a,b] with G'(x) = f(x) for all x in (a,b), then the integral of f from a to b, equals G(b)-G(a).

The more general statement is that if f is a Riemann integrable function on [a,b] and G(x) again is the injtegral of f from a to x, then G is Lipschitz continuous, and G is differentiable with G'(x) = f(x) at those points where f is continuous.

Then to derive the 2nd thm from the first you need the generalized mean value theorem, that a function G which is lipschitz continuous and has derivative equal to zero almost everywhere (i.e. except on a set of measure zero) is constant.

in most books the 2nd thm just says that if f is continuous on [a,b] and G is continuous on [a,b] with G'(x) = f(x) for all x in (a,b), then the integral of f from a to b, equals G(b)-G(a).

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JasonRox

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The Riemann Sum?

You can find the value under a curse with it.

You can find the value under a curse with it.

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