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3 Mellin transforms

  1. Jul 11, 2005 #1
    let,s suppose we have the equality:

    f(x)g(x)=H(x) now we have that f(x) and H(x) have no Mellin transform..then would be fair to do this?..

    Last edited: Jul 11, 2005
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 11, 2005 #2
    Another question..does the Mellin transform of [tex]ln\zeta(as)[/tex] exist? where a >0 and real

    and the transform of some of derivatives of [tex]ln\zeta(as)[/tex] ?
    Last edited: Jul 12, 2005
  4. Jul 12, 2005 #3
    another question let be the integral:

    [tex]M(s)=\int_0^{\infty}f(t)t^{s-1} [/tex] then we take the derivative respecto to s

    [tex]dM(s)/ds=\int_0^{\infty}ln(t)f(t)t^{s-1} [/tex] so then if dM(s)/ds=r(s) then:

    [tex]M(s)=\int_s^{\infty}r(p)dp [/tex] is that correct?..thanx
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