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[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

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- Thread starter catcherintherye
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- #1

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[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

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always check your post AFTER you send it with latex code!!

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HallsofIvy

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[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Is there a question here? My question is 'how did the [itex]\infty[/itex] in the integral become 1 in the evaluation?

Also, in what sense does this have anything to do with a "Laplace transform"? could you have forgotten an [itex]e^{-xt}[/itex]?

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