A laplace transform

  • #1

Main Question or Discussion Point

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
 
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Answers and Replies

  • #2
always check your post AFTER you send it with latex code!!
 
  • #3
HallsofIvy
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[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
Is there a question here? My question is 'how did the [itex]\infty[/itex] in the integral become 1 in the evaluation?

Also, in what sense does this have anything to do with a "Laplace transform"? could you have forgotten an [itex]e^{-xt}[/itex]?
 
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