1. Mar 19, 2007 #1

   catcherintherye

   

   [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

    

   Last edited by a moderator: Mar 20, 2007

   catcherintherye, Mar 19, 2007
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3. Mar 20, 2007 #2

   symplectic_manifold

   

   always check your post AFTER you send it with latex code!!

    

   symplectic_manifold, Mar 20, 2007
4. Mar 20, 2007 #3

   HallsofIvy

   

   Staff Emeritus

   Science Advisor

   Is there a question here? My question is 'how did the [itex]\infty[/itex] in the integral become 1 in the evaluation?
   
   Also, in what sense does this have anything to do with a "Laplace transform"? could you have forgotten an [itex]e^{-xt}[/itex]?

    

   Last edited: Mar 20, 2007

   HallsofIvy, Mar 20, 2007

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