# A laplace transform

1. Mar 19, 2007

### catcherintherye

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}$$

Last edited by a moderator: Mar 20, 2007
2. Mar 20, 2007

### symplectic_manifold

always check your post AFTER you send it with latex code!!

3. Mar 20, 2007

### HallsofIvy

Staff Emeritus
Is there a question here? My question is 'how did the $\infty$ in the integral become 1 in the evaluation?

Also, in what sense does this have anything to do with a "Laplace transform"? could you have forgotten an $e^{-xt}$?

Last edited: Mar 20, 2007