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A laplace transform

  1. Mar 19, 2007 #1
    [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 20, 2007
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 20, 2007 #2
    always check your post AFTER you send it with latex code!!
     
  4. Mar 20, 2007 #3

    HallsofIvy

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    Is there a question here? My question is 'how did the [itex]\infty[/itex] in the integral become 1 in the evaluation?

    Also, in what sense does this have anything to do with a "Laplace transform"? could you have forgotten an [itex]e^{-xt}[/itex]?
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 20, 2007
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