# A laplace transform

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}$$

Last edited by a moderator:

always check your post AFTER you send it with latex code!!

HallsofIvy
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}$$
Is there a question here? My question is 'how did the $\infty$ in the integral become 1 in the evaluation?
Also, in what sense does this have anything to do with a "Laplace transform"? could you have forgotten an $e^{-xt}$?