The simplest way to solve that indefinite integral is to realize that
[tex]\frac{d}{dx}tan x = sec^{2}x[/tex] , and try a u-substitution from there...
Yes, sorry, i am stupid. I realised that 2 minutes after posting here. I'm pretty sure i have it now. It's just -(2+u)^{-1} for u=tanx, right? And thanks for the reply.
It's just -(2+u)^{-1} for u=tanx, right? And thanks for the reply.
No problem. And, actually, you can set u = tan(x) + 2 to make things even easier. 2 is just a constant, so the derivative of tan(x) is the same as the derivative of tan(x) + 2.