1. Apr 15, 2009 #1

   Noo

   

   Solved. Thanks.

    

   Last edited: Apr 15, 2009

   Noo, Apr 15, 2009
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • Game over? Computer beats human champ in ancient Chinese game
   • • Simplifying solar cells with a new mix of materials
   • • Imaged 'jets' reveal cerium's post-shock inner strength
3. Apr 15, 2009 #2

   meiso

   

   The simplest way to solve that indefinite integral is to realize that
   
   [tex]\frac{d}{dx}tan x = sec^{2}x[/tex] , and try a u-substitution from there...

    

   meiso, Apr 15, 2009
4. Apr 15, 2009 #3

   Noo

   

   Yes, sorry, i am stupid. I realised that 2 minutes after posting here. I'm pretty sure i have it now. It's just -(2+u)^{-1} for u=tanx, right? And thanks for the reply.

    

   Noo, Apr 15, 2009
5. Apr 15, 2009 #4

   meiso

   

   No problem. And, actually, you can set u = tan(x) + 2 to make things even easier. 2 is just a constant, so the derivative of tan(x) is the same as the derivative of tan(x) + 2.

    

   meiso, Apr 15, 2009

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in