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Noah159
TL;DR Summary
Say: CAR A =has 4 correctly tightened brake pads.

CAR B = has 3 correctly tightened brake pads and one overly tightened brake pad (let's take front right).

The cars are the same except for the differences written above.

When a driver pushes down the brake pedal with the same force, how will the braking distance and time differ? (Car B obviously starts turning to the right, leading to change in affecting forces, even if insignificant)
My guess is that distance Car A needs to travel until it stops is longer than car B (not by much), and so it the time.

I also posted this question to reddit, if you want to check it out :

I got the answer, but unsure of it's legitimacy.

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Mentor
I don't think we have enough information to answer without adding in some assumptions...

1. No skidding/locking
2. Equal total applied force

If these are true, then I would think the stopping distance should be the same, since dry friction is pretty linear.

Noah159
I don't think we have enough information to answer without adding in some assumptions...

1. No skidding/locking
2. Equal total applied force

If these are true, then I would think the stopping distance should be the same, since dry friction is pretty linear.

Alright, thanks. I figured out what I asked for, however it is interesting to know that breaking in a line compared to braking in an angle does not drastically affect the braking distance / time. Thanks

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