Let be the Kelin-gordon equation (m=0) with a potential so:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex] (-\frac{\partial ^{2}}{\partial t^{2}}+V(x) )\Phi=0 [/tex]

my question is if you consider the wave function above as an operator..is the K-G operator of the form:

[tex] <0|T(\Phi(x)\Phi(x')|0> [/tex] T=time ordered

I think that in both cases..we use the same wave function but once is an scalar (or an spinor for electrons) and the other is an escalar...:shy: :shy:

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# A question about operators

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**