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A question about wave interference.

  1. Mar 5, 2005 #1
    Hello All!
    My question is about the interference if the waves.

    For example, I have SEVERAL solutions of the wave equation in some area (several eigenvalues and corresponding eigenfunctions). I want to see if the would be an interference between these solutions.

    What should I do?

    I see the 2 ways:

    1) use analytic sum of this functions.
    by this I mean to calculate the interference of the two plain waves of different amlitudes and wavelength. How can I do this?

    2) sum directly two my solutions.
    BUT a question arises: can I suppose that the difference in phase between my two solutions of the wave equation is what I need?
    Can I state that the phase difference between the 2 eigenmodes of the equation is the real phase difference between these two field distributions?
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 6, 2005 #2
    Seems to me you have to add all your solutions to get the unique, general solution. Adding them inherently means they interfere. Not sure I see any difference between your 1) and 2). The phase should be determined by boundary conditions.
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