Consider the usual set up in regard to showing that quantum correlations exist. Recall how Einstein, Podolski and Rosen in there 1935 argued that quantum mechanics must be incomplete since we can tell immediately the state of a particle A at time t by measuring the state of a particle B it interacted with, at time t = 0, for a short period of time say dt, i.e. they have been seperated for a time t - dt . Now we know from Feynman's QED that " a particle going forward in time is equivalent to it's antiparticle going backward in time". can we say that the set up of the experiment is equivalent to to anti particles running backwards in time and then interacting?