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A thought on quantum correlations and EPR

  1. Oct 29, 2004 #1
    Consider the usual set up in regard to showing that quantum correlations exist. Recall how Einstein, Podolski and Rosen in there 1935 argued that quantum mechanics must be incomplete since we can tell immediately the state of a particle A at time t by measuring the state of a particle B it interacted with, at time t = 0, for a short period of time say dt, i.e. they have been seperated for a time t - dt .
    Now we know from Feynman's QED that " a particle going forward in time is equivalent to it's antiparticle going backward in time". can we say that the set up of the experiment is equivalent to to anti particles running backwards in time and then interacting?
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 29, 2004 #2
    In a particle-antiparticle creation, if a particle moves along +x axis and its antiparticle along -x axis, can we say that it is moving in -t but +x.
  4. Oct 31, 2004 #3
    i think my original question on second thoughts might have been a little silly. the anti- particles run backward in time. They interact and then continue to run backward in time, but what is confusing is the fact that the set up of the experiment runs forward in time for us.

    in answer to your question anuj, in any annihilation/ creation experiment both particle and antiparticle travel in the +x direction, but one the particle travels in +t and the antiparticle goes the opposite way.
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