Euler proved that the infinite product(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

1/1-p**(-s) with p running over all primes was equal to R(s) where R(s) is teh Riemman z function my question is if the product:

1/1-exp(-sp) over all primes would be hte same as summing the series

1+exp(-s)+exp(-2s)+..=1/1+exp(-s) or what would be the equality...thanks.

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# About an identity by Euler

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