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About another thread, Faraday's law of induction

  1. Dec 14, 2009 #1

    fluidistic

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    Gold Member

    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    Here's the situation: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=363089.
    First, does a magnetic flux through a rod considered with no surface area makes sense? To reach the result, we have to assume the flux through it to be -BLR since it's going out from the magnetic source (namely an infinite wire).

    Second question : Does that mean that when I push on the rod to make it closer to the wire, the emf induced in the rod acts to opposes the magnetic field due to the wire? In other words, does this induced emf creates a magnetic field that opposes the one of the wire, so that the total magnetic field decreases?
    While if I pull on the rod outside from the wire, the emf is positive and hence it creates a magnetic field that will sum up with the one of the wire, making a greater magnetic field. Am I right on this? I've particularly the doubt that the induced emf will create a magnetic field, since there's no closed circuit.
    Can someone explain to me what really happens in the situation of the problem?
    Thank you very much, sincerely.
     
  2. jcsd
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