Phonons are said to be the result of the quantization of crystal waves.Let the function [itex] u=u_0 e^{i(\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}-\omega t)} [/itex] describe such a wave. Is it right to say that if we assume u to be the quantum mechanical wave function of a particle, that particle is a phonon?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# About phonons

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