- #1
abcd8989
- 44
- 0
Given F is directly proportional to the product of m1 and m2. F is also inversely proportional to the r^2. F, m1, m2 and r are real numbers.
Why we can link the above two variations together and say that F=km1m2/r^2, where k is the proportionality constant? Aren't the the variations independent? How to prove that variations can be linked like that?
(This question is essentially Newton's Law of Universial Gravitation.)
Why we can link the above two variations together and say that F=km1m2/r^2, where k is the proportionality constant? Aren't the the variations independent? How to prove that variations can be linked like that?
(This question is essentially Newton's Law of Universial Gravitation.)