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From electromagnetic theories, with the Lorentz gauge condition for the magnetic vector potential, I get the following wave equation:

1/csquared * d2A/dt2 + del2 A= u0 j.

in some literatures, they ignored the d2A/dt2 term and I don't know why they can do that. Is it becasue they assumed some quasi-stationary condition on the E field created by the magnetic field?

This simplication leads to a big simplification in which they can solve it as a Poisson Equation. I just want to know why they can ignore that term.

Thanks,

Micahel

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# Advanced Electromagnetic and Mathematic Concepts

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