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Airy function normalization

  1. Sep 18, 2013 #1
    Is the Airy function (of the first kind) normalized? If I take the integral

    Ai(x) dx

    on the entire axis, does it converge to 1? I can't find this property by googling around :(
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 18, 2013 #2


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  4. Sep 18, 2013 #3
    cool, thanks mate!
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