Airy function normalization

  • Thread starter Irid
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  • #1
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Main Question or Discussion Point

Is the Airy function (of the first kind) normalized? If I take the integral

Ai(x) dx

on the entire axis, does it converge to 1? I can't find this property by googling around :(
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
fzero
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  • #3
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cool, thanks mate!
 

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