- #1

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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I was told to prove that

f: X -> Y is a homeomorphism iff it is an open map

While I see that if f is a homeomorphism, it is certainly an open map, but is the implication in the other direction even true? Because I see no reason to believe it is.

f: X -> Y is a homeomorphism iff it is an open map

While I see that if f is a homeomorphism, it is certainly an open map, but is the implication in the other direction even true? Because I see no reason to believe it is.