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## Main Question or Discussion Point

In a book of Introduction to Probability I found this statement:

" Let be [tex]F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{x} f(t)dt.[/tex] Then, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, [tex]F'(x) = f(x).[/tex]"

With the minus infinity on the lower limit, it is this a valid aplication of the FTC???

Thanks.

" Let be [tex]F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{x} f(t)dt.[/tex] Then, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, [tex]F'(x) = f(x).[/tex]"

With the minus infinity on the lower limit, it is this a valid aplication of the FTC???

Thanks.