if we consider a separable measurement operator $$(A+A')\otimes (B-B')$$ then quantum mechanics predict the result is in [-2;2](adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Whereas going to classical results would give in [-4;4]

This could indicate that going from measurement operator in the quantum realm to measurement results is maybe more complicated than just retranscripting the terms ?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# An inverse Bell theorem

Loading...

Similar Threads for inverse Bell theorem |
---|

I Big Bell Test |

I Generalizing the Bell Inequality for Arbitrary Measurement Axes |

A Inverse momentum operator |

I Does 'Phase Inversion' grow exponentially? |

A How spin projector got included in inverse of Matrix? |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**