- #1

maximus101

- 22

- 0

lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.

how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?

You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.

You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.

You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.

- Thread starter maximus101
- Start date

- #1

maximus101

- 22

- 0

lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.

how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?

- #2

- 22,178

- 3,305

Try a [tex]\epsilon,\delta[/tex] proof. It's not to hard if you do just that...

Share:

- Replies
- 15

- Views
- 468

- Last Post

- Replies
- 1

- Views
- 262

- Replies
- 1

- Views
- 202

- Last Post

- Replies
- 13

- Views
- 586

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 399

- Last Post

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 489

- Last Post

- Replies
- 3

- Views
- 621

- Last Post

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 577

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 466

- Last Post

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 863