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Analysis question

  • Thread starter maximus101
  • Start date
  • #1
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suppose that f : (a,b)\{c} ----> real numbers is a function such that

lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.

how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
22,097
3,280
Try a [tex]\epsilon,\delta[/tex] proof. It's not to hard if you do just that...
 

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