- #1

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lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.

how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?

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- Thread starter maximus101
- Start date

- #1

- 22

- 0

lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.

how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?

- #2

- 22,089

- 3,297

Try a [tex]\epsilon,\delta[/tex] proof. It's not to hard if you do just that...

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