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suppose that f : (a,b)\{c} ----> real numbers is a function such that
lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.
how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?
lim (x--->c+) {f(x)} and lim (x--->c-) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l.
how can we actually prove that lim (x--->c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l?