My problem is with finding total angular momentum S of a spin 2 particles. My quantum book doesn't do any examples with spin 2 particles do i just do J(J+1)|j,m> and just plug in j and that will be my value.
Assuming zero orbital angular momentum, L = 0, then the eigenvalue of the total angular momentum squared is just S^2 = s(s+1)*(h-bar)^2, with s = 2. Generally, the treatment of the problem is the same as with spin-1/2 particles, so the orbital- and spin-components of angular momentum add together as usual in the case of non-zero orbital angular momentum, ie j goes between abs(l - s) and abs(l+s) in integer steps, then l(l+1)*(h-bar)^2 is the eigenvalue of L^2. Cheyne