- #1

physics1000

- 69

- 4

Misplaced Homework Thread

Hi, I have a question.

Let us say we have the wave function as with eigen value and base eigen value of:

##!\psi >\:=\:\frac{1}{6}\left(4!1,0,0>\:+\:3!2,1,1>\:-1!2,1,0\:+\:\sqrt{10}!2,1,-1>\right)##

I need to find <Ly^2>

the solution of the problem according to answers, is demanding that <Lx^2>=<Ly^2> ( Due to symmetry ) which I have no idea why.

If I dont want to use that symmetry ( let us say I did not know that at the test ), how do I calculate it?

I tried calculating it using formulas, it is impossible...

The beginning is from our formulas, f) is the solution.

How do I find it without saying <Ly^2>=<Lx^2>? ( finding <L^2> and <Lz^2> is easy )

Edit:

Of course it is easy also to find lx and ly using lower and upper operators, but doing square, is impossible...

Let us say we have the wave function as with eigen value and base eigen value of:

##!\psi >\:=\:\frac{1}{6}\left(4!1,0,0>\:+\:3!2,1,1>\:-1!2,1,0\:+\:\sqrt{10}!2,1,-1>\right)##

I need to find <Ly^2>

the solution of the problem according to answers, is demanding that <Lx^2>=<Ly^2> ( Due to symmetry ) which I have no idea why.

If I dont want to use that symmetry ( let us say I did not know that at the test ), how do I calculate it?

I tried calculating it using formulas, it is impossible...

The beginning is from our formulas, f) is the solution.

How do I find it without saying <Ly^2>=<Lx^2>? ( finding <L^2> and <Lz^2> is easy )

Edit:

Of course it is easy also to find lx and ly using lower and upper operators, but doing square, is impossible...

Last edited: