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Angular velocity equation

  1. Jan 30, 2005 #1

    DB

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    I saw this on Wikipedia
    [tex]\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}=2\pi f = v/r[/tex]

    What I don't understand is [tex]\omega= \\ \frac{2\pi}{T}=2\pi f[/tex]
    How can they be equivilant?

    Thanks
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 30, 2005 #2

    dextercioby

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    THINK OF THE CIRCULAR MOVEMENT WITH CONSTANT ANGULAR VELOCITY...It will enlighten you.And a bit of trigonometry +geometry woudln't hurt at all....

    Daniel.
     
  4. Jan 30, 2005 #3

    DB

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    Let me clarify my question:
    How can angular velocity be equivilant to 2pi divided by time in seconds and also equivilant to 2pi x hertz (in seconds obviously)? Isn't frequency dealing with circular motion revolutions per second?
     
    Last edited: Jan 30, 2005
  5. Jan 30, 2005 #4

    dextercioby

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    Of course it is.That's what i suggested.
    [tex] T=\frac{1}{\nu} [/tex]

    [tex] T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega} [/tex]

    [tex] \omega =2 \pi \nu [/tex]

    All of them are valid for circular motion...And completely equivalent...

    WHAT IS ANGULAR VELOCITY...???

    Daniel.
     
  6. Jan 30, 2005 #5

    DB

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    ya, ya. I wasn't doubting they weren't equivilant. I just didnt understand why. I see it now though. Thanks man.
     
  7. Jan 31, 2005 #6
    Notice though that the so called "circular motion" which frequency must deal with would rather to be thought of metaphoricly. Circular as in a repeation of a certain entity and motion in the sense of things altering as the function of another variable. We may very well measure the frequency of people taking their dogs out on a walk or the frequency of wagons appearing on a merry go round wheel as the function of the distance along it's rim.
     
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