Unraveling the Equivalence: Chain Rule and Cauchy-Riemann Equations

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In summary, the chain rule is used in the proof to show that the Cauchy-Riemann equations are equivalent to the given equations. The correct use of the chain rule considers all possible derivatives and takes into account the relationships between the variables. Substituting the given values for x and y does not lead to the same equation, indicating an error in the calculation.
  • #1
fredrick08
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Homework Statement


f(z)=u(r,theta)+iy(r,theta)... where x=rcos(theta) and y=rsin(theta), use chain rule to show that [tex]\partial[/tex]u/[tex]\partial[/tex]r=1/r([tex]\partial[/tex]v/[tex]\partial[/tex][tex]\theta[/tex]) and [tex]\partial[/tex]v/[tex]\partial[/tex]r=-1/r([tex]\partial[/tex]u/[tex]\partial[/tex][tex]\theta[/tex]) are equivelent to the cauchy riemann equations.


Homework Equations


CR equations: [tex]\partial[/tex]u/[tex]\partial[/tex]x=[tex]\partial[/tex]v/[tex]\partial[/tex]y and [tex]\partial[/tex]u/[tex]\partial[/tex]y=-[tex]\partial[/tex]v/[tex]\partial[/tex]x


The Attempt at a Solution


Ok the I am unsure by how i am meant to use the chain rule here? and instead of typing out the dirvative I am goin to just write i.e d/dx..

i did, dz/dr=dz/dx*dx/dr=1(cos(theta) and dz/dtheta=dz/dy*dy/dtheta=rcos(theta)... but that doesn't make sense... its the same as the provided equations without the 1/r.. but if i do the CR equations i get, du/dx=1 and du/dy=0?
 
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  • #2
Your use of the chain rule is incorrect here.

Since we're talking about functions of several variables, the chain rule must consider all the possible derivatives. So for example:

[tex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}+\frac{\partial \theta}{\partial x}\frac{\partial u}{\partial \theta}[/tex]
 
  • #3
ok then, but can i ask how do u do dr/dx and dtheta/dx? since r and theta are part of x?
 
  • #4
do i rearrange?? coz r=x/cos(theta)?? then diffrentiate with respect to x?
 
  • #5
ok so if i do the chain rule that elib gave... i get (1/cos(theta))*cos(theta)+-1/(r*sqrt(1-x^2/r^2)*-rsin(theta)... but when i do dv/dy i kind of get similar answer, but instead of the x^2 its y^2, and the last term is cos(theta) and not sin(theta)
 
  • #6
ok for the x^2 and y^2 values, i subbed in there respecful values x=rcos(theta) y=rsin(theta) then i get...
1+(sin([tex]\theta[/tex])/sqrt(1-cos^2([tex]\theta[/tex])/r^2))=1+(cos([tex]\theta[/tex])/sqrt(1-sin^2([tex]\theta[/tex])/r^2)), which clearly does no equal?
 

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