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Homework Statement
Let [tex]\{f_n\}[/tex] be a uniformly bounded sequence of functions which are Riemann-integrable on [a,b]. Let
[tex]F_n(x) = \int_a^x f_n(t) \, dt[/tex]
Prove that there exists a subsequence of [tex]\{F_n\}[/tex] which converges uniformly on [a,b].
The attempt at a solution
I was thinking, since [tex]\{f_n\}[/tex] is uniformly bounded, there is an M such that [tex]F_n(x) \le M(x - a) \le M(b - a)[/tex] for all n, for all x. Now this automatically means that [tex]\{F_n\}[/tex] converges uniformly right? But then if [tex]\{F_n\}[/tex] converges uniformly, why is the problem requesting for a subsequence? I must have done something wrong.
Let [tex]\{f_n\}[/tex] be a uniformly bounded sequence of functions which are Riemann-integrable on [a,b]. Let
[tex]F_n(x) = \int_a^x f_n(t) \, dt[/tex]
Prove that there exists a subsequence of [tex]\{F_n\}[/tex] which converges uniformly on [a,b].
The attempt at a solution
I was thinking, since [tex]\{f_n\}[/tex] is uniformly bounded, there is an M such that [tex]F_n(x) \le M(x - a) \le M(b - a)[/tex] for all n, for all x. Now this automatically means that [tex]\{F_n\}[/tex] converges uniformly right? But then if [tex]\{F_n\}[/tex] converges uniformly, why is the problem requesting for a subsequence? I must have done something wrong.