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Antiderivative vs integral

  1. Feb 26, 2014 #1
    I am just stuck on the fact that the antiderivative of cos(x) is -sin(x) but the integral of cos(x) is a positive vale of sin(x). Can someone please explain this to me. I am two weeks behind on my calculus course now because I got stuck on integration by parts and don't understand anything after that and I am reading over my teacher's answer key and see this in one of the solutions and don't understand why. Thanks
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 26, 2014 #2

    LCKurtz

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    No. That is the derivative on cos(x), not its antiderivative.

     
  4. Feb 26, 2014 #3
    OMG no wonder. I can't believe I have been tripping over something that simple. I'm just so overwhelmed right now I am making stupid mistakes. Thank you for pointing that out.

     
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