Dear All Assume a positive bias is applied across a metal-semiconductor junction which was previously in equilibrium. This lowers the Fermi level of the metal with respect to the Fermi level of the semiconductor. Why and how? An example version of this statement, as I also find it in every book, is given here: http://ecee.colorado.edu/~bart/book/book/chapter3/ch3_2.htm (check out section 3.2.4). All it says is that the Fermi level increases, but not why or from what rationale this can be concluded. Is this so trivial or so complex that it is not explained why? Thanks for any feedback or hints on where to find this explained.