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-arctan(x/y) = arctan(y/x) ?

  1. Jun 13, 2013 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    -arctan(x/y) = arctan(y/x) ?

    Are they equivalent? I can't find anything online and I have seen that my solution to some problem involves
    -arctan(x/y) and it agrees with Wolfram Alpha. On the other hand, my professor's solution shows the arctan(y/x) and this is why I am doubtful.

    Any ideas?
    Thank you.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 13, 2013 #2

    Dick

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    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    They aren't equal. That would be silly, put x=1 and y=1. But the derivative d/dx with y a constant of arctan(y/x) is the same as the derivative of -arctan(x/y) if that's any help.
     
    Last edited: Jun 13, 2013
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