Assuming perfect competition in neoclassical economics: * The principle remains that any business which makes more profit than another will have an increased chance of expanding additionally by using that profit. This, in turn leads them to better chances of larger profits. So, what is to stop one, or a few, companies from eventually reating an oligarchy or monopoly within any given, but also specifically high cost, industries? * What is to stop a corporation, or coalition of, from gaining sufficient influence in a civilian government to start a war for economic profit? * Would a person who, at any point in their life, possessed less material wealth than another have less options for class mobility? * Would a person who possessed less material wealth than most or the rest of society have less or limited freedom of mobility (assuming privatization of roads, ect), right to legal representation (privatization of legal council), security of person (privatisation of healthcare and/or security), right to "pursuit of happiness" (privatization of education and/or healthcare, ect) than experienced by those of wealthier standing? I'd appreciate really detailed explanations as if I knew nothing about politics or economics (which, judging from you capitalists' opinions of me, shouldn't be hard).