Does anyone here have a good explanation of why the fourier transform of the autocorrelation function equals the ESD of the the original signal. It kind of make sense intutively because functions that have a autocorrelation that drops of quickly are high frenquency and the fourier transform of that resulting function will obviuosly have a wide bandwidth but it seems like there should but a analytic derivation of this.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Autocorrelation and ESD/PSD

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