Correct me if I am wrong. For a RL circuit, I know as a fact at t=0, there is a back emf that is almost equivalent to the original emf source. In order for the back emf to exist, there needs to be a magnetic field in the inductor. In order for there to be a magnetic field in the inductor, there needs to be a current flowing through the inductor. In fact, the current would need to be close to the maximum current to induce such a large back emf noticeable at t=0. Yet, at t=0, I also know that the current in an RL circuit is 0. And so on. Is this a paradox? What did I miss here?